medium · Asset-Backed Securities tranching

A transaction features an 'OC Step-up' trigger. If the initial overcollateralization is 1.00% and the trigger requires a step-up to 3.00% of the initial pool balance, how is this additional $20,000,000 (on a $1.0bn pool) typically funded?

  1. By redirecting excess spread away from the residual holder
  2. Through a mandatory capital call made to the investors.
  3. By having the servicer advance the necessary funds itself, out of pocket.
  4. By issuing additional subordinate bonds to raise the extra needed cash.

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