easy · Corporate Credit Analysis
For a capital-intensive industry like steel or cement, why is the (EBITDA - Capex) / Interest ratio often more meaningful than EBITDA / Interest?
- It results in a higher ratio that makes the company look stronger to lenders.
- It is required by GAAP accounting for all public filers.
- It accounts for the heavy reinvestment required to keep the manufacturing facilities operational.
- It ignores the impact of depreciation on the income statement.
Sign up free to see the explanation and track your rank →
More Corporate Credit Analysis practice
- Apex Manufacturing has a total exposure at default (EAD) of… — What is the annual expected
- What is the company's Funds From Operations (FFO)?
- Which statement best reflects the credit risk synthesis?
- A credit agreement requires a borrower to maintain a Net Lev… — What type of covenant is t
- Using the Merton structural model intuition, if a company's equity volatility (sigma_V) in
- What is its CET1 ratio?
- If EBITDA is $150M, what is the entry leverage multiple?
- What is its EBITDA/Interest coverage ratio?