hard · Debt Capital Markets bond-instruments-structures
An issuer prices a 10-year senior unsecured benchmark with a 'short first coupon' (first coupon period runs less than the standard 6 months because settlement falls mid-period) versus an otherwise identical bond with a regular first coupon.
For an investor focused on realized yield, why does the short-first-coupon structure, when both are priced to the same yield-to-maturity, leave the investor economically equivalent rather than advantaged or disadvantaged?
- The first coupon is reduced pro-rata for the shortened accrual period, so the smaller initial cash flow exactly offsets the shorter time it is discounted, leaving YTM and price internally consistent and the investor neutral
- The short first coupon pays a full 6-month coupon over less than 6 months, boosting the investor's realized yield above the quoted YTM, so the structure is a hidden advantage
- The shortened period means the investor forgoes accrued interest, so at equal YTM the short-first-coupon bond must be cheaper, transferring value to the investor at settlement
- Because day-count conventions round the short stub up to a full period, the bond effectively pays an extra fractional coupon, modestly lowering the issuer's all-in cost
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