hard · Debt Capital Markets bond-instruments-structures

A sinking-fund corporate bond requires the issuer to retire 10% of the original $500mm issue each year from years 6 through 15, satisfiable either by open-market purchase or by a par call of bonds chosen by lottery. The bond currently trades at 92. An analyst argues the sinking fund is unambiguously bondholder-friendly because it reduces credit risk over time.

What is the most precise critique of that claim from a single bondholder's perspective?

  1. When the bond trades below par the issuer will satisfy the sink via cheaper open-market purchases rather than the par lottery, so an individual holder gains little call protection and may simply face reduced liquidity in a shrinking float
  2. The sinking fund forces the issuer to call bonds at par regardless of market price, so a holder bought at 92 is guaranteed a par redemption gain that offsets any credit benefit
  3. Because retirement is by lottery, every holder faces a fixed probability of par redemption each year, which makes the bond's effective duration longer than a comparable bullet
  4. The sink improves credit only if funded from new debt, so absent refinancing the analyst's premise of falling credit risk is structurally impossible to achieve

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