medium · Debt Capital Markets credit-ratings-risk

A corporate issuer is downgraded from Baa3 to Ba1. Which phenomenon most likely explains the subsequent spread widening beyond what the one-notch fundamental change would suggest?

  1. Forced selling by mandate-constrained investors
  2. A sudden increase in the risk-free rate
  3. Negative convexity in the issuer's bullet bonds
  4. The pull to par effect

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