medium · FRM Part 2 Risk & Investment Management

A risk analyst is comparing two hedge funds. Fund X has a Sharpe ratio of 2.5 but significant negative skewness. Fund Y has a Sharpe ratio of 1.2 and positive skewness.

Which fund is more likely to be favored by a 'Coherent' risk measure like Expected Shortfall (ES)?

  1. Fund X, because negative skewness is always offset by a higher risk premium.
  2. Fund X, because its higher Sharpe ratio implies superior risk-adjusted returns regardless of distribution shape.
  3. Fund Y, because ES requires the distribution to be normal to satisfy the subadditivity axiom.
  4. Fund Y, as ES is sensitive to tail severity which is penalized in negatively skewed distributions.

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