easy · Investment Banking valuation-core
In a DCF, why might a high-growth technology company have a Terminal Value that represents over 80% of its total Enterprise Value?
- Because most of the company's significant cash flows are expected to occur far in the future rather than during the 5-year projection period
- Because a high-growth company's Capex and Depreciation figures always converge precisely to zero by the terminal year of the model.
- Because technology companies with rapid growth are legally required by securities regulators to use the Exit Multiple Method instead of Perpetuity Growth.
- Because high-growth companies typically carry lower WACCs than mature firms, making the Terminal Value less sensitive to the discounting process.
Sign up free to see the explanation and track your rank →
More Investment Banking valuation-core practice
- What is the Multiple on Invested Capital (MOIC)?
- What is the control premium?
- Which valuation methodology would likely produce the 'floor' valuation for a mature indust
- Which of the following changes, held in isolation, would most likely achieve this?
- What is the Multiple on Invested Capital (MOIC)?
- If a company has an Unlevered Free Cash Flow (UFCF) of $500 million in Year 5, a WACC of 1
- What is the 3-year Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR)?
- What is the Multiple on Invested Capital (MOIC)?