hard · Market Microstructure

A stock has a true (efficient) price following a random walk with per-trade innovation variance σ_u^2. The observed transaction price is the efficient price plus a bid-ask bounce component, where each trade is buyer- or seller-initiated with equal probability and the half-spread is s. Under the Roll model, the first-order autocovariance of observed price changes is -s^2. An analyst estimates the implied spread from this autocovariance but the stock's order flow is actually positively autocorrelated (trade-direction indicator has serial correlation ρ > 0), violating Roll's independence assumption.

Relative to the true effective spread, how does the standard Roll estimator behave?

  1. It is biased downward, because positive order-flow autocorrelation makes the price-change autocovariance less negative (closer to zero), shrinking the spread implied by 2√(-Cov).
  2. It is biased upward, because persistent runs of same-side trades amplify the magnitude of the negative autocovariance and inflate 2√(-Cov).
  3. It remains unbiased, because the random-walk efficient price component is orthogonal to order flow and absorbs the autocorrelation, leaving the bounce covariance intact.
  4. It is biased downward only when the autocovariance turns positive and the estimator is undefined, but otherwise it correctly recovers the spread.

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