hard · NCLEX-RN psychosocial
Complete the following clinical rationale statement by selecting the correct options from the drop-down menus: Apply the response specifically to this case: client taking antipsychotic medication who develops fever, lead-pipe rigidity, autonomic instability, and escalating confusion while staff initially attribute behavior to personality disorder.
- Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
- Anticholinergic toxicity
- Progression of severe catatonic schizophrenia
- the combination of severe hyperthermia, generalized 'lead-pipe' muscle rigidity, and autonomic instability following antipsychotic use
- the presence of dry mucosal membranes, urinary retention, and absent bowel sounds
- the client's baseline history of refusal to communicate or move his limbs
Sign up free to see the explanation and track your rank →
More NCLEX-RN psychosocial practice
- Which action should the nurse take first?
- Which nursing intervention is the safest immediate response to prevent escalation to viole
- Which nursing action is the highest priority?
- I won't ever try that again.” Which action by the nurse demonstrates the best understandin
- What is the most appropriate nursing response?
- Which medication in the client's history likely contributed to this condition when combine
- Which laboratory result would require the nurse to hold the medication and notify the prov
- Which medication should the nurse be prepared to administer?