medium · NCLEX-RN Reduction of Risk Potential
A client who is postoperative day 1 after a major orthopedic procedure has the following vital signs: BP 102/60 mmHg, HR 110/min, RR 22/min, and SpO_2 95%. The RN notes the client’s pulse pressure has narrowed over the last 3 hours.
How should the nurse interpret this finding?
- As an indication that the client is becoming overhydrated from IV fluids.
- As an early sign of compensatory shock due to decreased stroke volume.
- As a side effect of recent opioid analgesic administration.
- As a normal response to postoperative pain and anxiety.
Sign up free to see the explanation and track your rank →
More NCLEX-RN Reduction of Risk Potential practice
- The nurse is caring for a client with severe burns during th… — How should the nurse inter
- Which interpretation is most accurate?
- Which laboratory finding best indicates that the DKA is resolving?
- According to the 'Trend before label' principle, what is the nurse's priority action after
- A nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of heart… — Which physical finding mos
- Using the formula MAP = (SBP + 2 x DBP) / 3, what is the client's Mean Arterial Pressure
- What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A nurse reviews the following laboratory results for a clien… — What is the most accurate