medium · Principles of Finance valuation

An analyst is looking at a 'Football Field' chart in a valuation report. They notice that the valuation range from 'Precedent Transactions' is significantly higher than the range from 'Public Trading Comparables.'

What is the most likely reason for this?

  1. Public trading comps are based on outdated historical earnings.
  2. Precedent transactions are always more accurate than public market data.
  3. Precedent transactions include a control premium paid by the acquirer.
  4. Trading comparables include the value of expected future synergies.

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