medium · Private Equity advanced-lbo

An LBO model shows that in Year 1, Cash Flow Available for Debt Service (CFADS) is $28.7M. Mandatory Term Loan A amortization is $33.3M.

How does the model typically resolve this shortfall?

  1. By drawing on the Revolving Credit Facility (RCF) to cover the mandatory payment, increasing debt at the end of the period.
  2. By automatically triggering an event of default and handing operational control of the company to the senior lenders
  3. By increasing the EBITDA add-backs used in the model until the calculated debt coverage ratio meets the required threshold
  4. By reducing the GP's annual management fee for that fiscal year in order to preserve additional cash within the portfolio company

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