medium · Private Equity advanced-lbo

A company has $200M of Term Loan A debt and $200M of Term Loan B debt. The TLA requires 10% annual amortization ($20M). The company's CFADS is $15M.

How is the shortfall in the mandatory TLA payment handled in a typical LBO model?

  1. The TLA lender agrees to capitalize the $5M shortfall into the principal balance as a PIK adjustment.
  2. The $5M shortfall is deducted from the 'Minimum Cash' cushion to satisfy the bank.
  3. The $5M shortfall is instead subtracted from the TLB's scheduled 1% mandatory amortization.
  4. The company draws 5M from its Revolving Credit Facility to satisfy the mandatory TLA payment.

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