medium · Private Equity pe-core
A fund's IRR is 25% and its MIRR (Modified Internal Rate of Return) is 18%. The primary reason for the lower MIRR is that:
- The MIRR assumes interim distributions are reinvested at a lower cost of capital rate rather than at the 25% IRR
- The IRR is a purely money-weighted rate of return, whereas the MIRR is a time-weighted return metric
- The MIRR restates interim cash flows to reflect the time-weighted volatility observed in the public equity markets
- The MIRR calculation subtracts management fees and carried interest, while the IRR is typically reported on a gross basis
Sign up free to see the explanation and track your rank →
More Private Equity pe-core practice
- If the GP receives a 20% carry on the profit from Deal A immediately, and the fund eventua
- Following the investment, what is the investor's ownership percentage in the company, assu
- What is the Interest Coverage Ratio?
- A private equity firm is calculating a 'Public Market Equiva… — If the KS-PME score is 1.1
- A sponsor provides an 'Equity Cure' to a portfolio company. What is the standard purpose o
- What is the new effective conversion price for the growth equity investor?
- Which company will report a higher 'Gross Margin' and a higher ending 'Inventory' value on
- What is the company's Interest Coverage Ratio?