medium · Quantitative Finance
In the Merton structural model, a firm has assets of 200M, asset volatility σ_A = 30%, and a debt face value of 150M due in T = 2 years.
If the risk-free rate r = 3%, how is the risk-neutral probability of default calculated?
- It is represented by Φ(-d_2), where d_2 is the same parameter used in the Black-Scholes formula for a call on the firm's assets.
- It is calculated as 1 - Φ(d_1), representing the likelihood that the firm's underlying assets grow beyond their current value.
- It equals the credit spread of the firm's bond divided by the loss given default, expressed as (1-R) in the denominator.
- It is the ratio of the debt face value to the current asset value, D/A_0, further scaled by the annualized asset volatility.
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