medium · Quantitative Finance stochastic

The Feynman-Kac theorem relates the Black-Scholes PDE to the expectation under the risk-neutral measure.

If we were to use the physical measure P, what would happen to the PDE?

  1. The term -rV would vanish entirely, since discounting future cash flows is purely a risk-neutral device.
  2. The first-derivative coefficient would change to μ S, but the solution would not represent a market price.
  3. The PDE stays parabolic; that classification depends on the highest-order derivative terms, not drift.
  4. The second-derivative coefficient stays unchanged, since Girsanov's theorem says volatility is measure-invariant.

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