medium · Asset-Backed Securities

A transaction features an 'OC Step-up' trigger. If the initial overcollateralization is 1.00% and the trigger requires a step-up to 3.00% of the initial pool balance, how is this additional $20,000,000 (on a $1.0bn pool) typically funded?

  1. By redirecting excess spread away from the residual holder
  2. Through a mandatory capital call to the investors
  3. By the servicer advancing the necessary funds
  4. By issuing additional subordinate bonds

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