easy · Asset-Backed Securities

A bank enters into a 'Synthetic Securitization' (Significant Risk Transfer) on a corporate loan portfolio. Instead of selling the loans, it buys a Credit Default Swap (CDS) from an SPE.

What is the primary motivation for this structure?

  1. To achieve regulatory capital relief while keeping the client relationships and loans on the balance sheet.
  2. To avoid the 'True Sale' requirement that the SEC formally mandates for all bank loan securitizations.
  3. To increase the bank's total reported interest income by charging the SPE investors an ongoing risk premium fee.
  4. To hide the identity of the underlying corporate borrowers from both the bank's own internal and external auditors.

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