medium · FRM Part 1 Financial Markets and Products

An Asian call option is struck at 100 and settles based on the arithmetic average of five monthly spot prices:95, $98,102, 105, and110.

How does its payoff compare to an otherwise identical vanilla European call, and why?

  1. The Asian payoff of 10 equals the vanilla payoff because both fully capture the same terminal upward price move.
  2. The Asian payoff (2) is lower than the vanilla payoff (10) because averaging reduces the impact of late-term price spikes.
  3. The Asian payoff is 0 because the running average must stay above the strike for the whole five-month averaging period.
  4. The Asian payoff of 5 is higher than the vanilla payoff because averaging still benefits from the underlying's steady upward trend.

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