hard · FRM Part 1
If the yield curve undergoes a significant non-parallel shift where long-term rates rise more than short-term rates (steepening), how is the Cheapest-to-Deliver (CTD) bond most likely to change for a long-duration Treasury bond futures contract?
- The CTD will automatically become the bond with the shortest maturity.
- The CTD will shift toward bonds with the highest conversion factors.
- The CTD will likely shift toward bonds with lower duration and lower coupons.
- The CTD status is invariant to parallel or non-parallel shifts in the yield curve.
Sign up free to see the explanation and track your rank →
More FRM Part 1 practice
- According to the CAPM, which type of risk are investors compensated for bearing?
- What specific variety of liquidity risk is being described?
- How is 'Risk Capacity' distinguished from 'Risk Appetite' in a standard risk governance fr
- If a loan has a Probability of Default (PD) of 2.0%, an Exposure at Default (EAD) of $1,00
- If two portfolios have the same Sharpe ratio but one has positive skewness and the other h
- In a 'Liquidity Spiral', what is the primary channel by which market liquidity risk and fu
- In the context of the CAPM, what is the definition of 'Alpha' (α)?
- In the risk decomposition formula σ^2_i = β^2_i σ^2_M + σ^2_ε, what does σ^2_ε represent?