medium · FRM Part 1

In a risk-budgeting framework, if an asset has a Component VaR that is higher than its capital weight (e.g., 10% of risk from 5% of capital), what does this tell the manager?

  1. The Marginal VaR of the asset must be negative.
  2. The asset is perfectly uncorrelated with the market index.
  3. The asset has a beta relative to the portfolio greater than 1.0.
  4. The asset is a powerful diversifier for the portfolio.

Sign up free to see the explanation and track your rank →

More FRM Part 1 practice

KomFi Academy — Stop doomscrolling. Get KomFi.

Build your intelligence, anytime, anywhere.

KomFi Academy is a curated training platform with 40,000+ practice questions, 18,000+ flashcards, on-demand video lectures, podcasts, and 4K slide decks across the topics serious professionals study: GMAT, LSAT, MCAT, Investment Banking, Private Equity (LBOs & PE math), Private Credit, Quantitative Finance, Financial Accounting, Asset- Backed Securities, Volume Profile Analysis, Order Flow Trading, Market Microstructure, Volume Spread Analysis, Elliott Wave Theory, Volume-Price Analysis, and Public Offering Frameworks.

What's inside

Topics

View pricing · Read testimonials