medium · FRM Part 2 Credit Risk

What is the primary reason why risk-neutral probabilities of default (PD) extracted from credit spreads are generally higher than physical (real-world) default frequencies?

  1. The use of equity volatility rather than asset value
  2. The violation of subadditivity in VaR risk aggregation results
  3. The presence of a default risk premium and liquidity premium
  4. The failure of the square-root-of-time rule when scaling volatility

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