hard · FRM Part 2 Current Issues

During the USD LIBOR-to-SOFR transition, a desk holds a legacy swap that referenced 3-month USD LIBOR and was amended to fall back to compounded-in-arrears SOFR plus the ISDA fixed spread adjustment. The treasurer is puzzled that, even with the spread adjustment, residual basis and behavior differ from the old LIBOR leg.

Which statement MOST accurately characterizes the irreducible economic difference that the fixed ISDA spread adjustment does NOT eliminate?

  1. LIBOR was a forward-looking term rate embedding bank credit and term premia set at period start, whereas compounded-in-arrears SOFR is a backward-looking near-risk-free rate known only at period end, so the fixed spread corrects the median historical level but not the dynamic, state-contingent credit-sensitivity and timing of the cash flow.
  2. The spread adjustment resets daily to track the prevailing LIBOR-SOFR gap observed in the underlying reference panel data each morning, so any residual basis the treasurer now observes must stem from a data feed or calculation error in the fallback methodology rather than any genuine underlying economic difference between the two rates.
  3. Compounded-in-arrears SOFR is itself effectively a forward-looking term rate once the daily compounding is applied across the full accrual period each quarter, so the only difference remaining after the fallback amendment is a minor day-count convention mismatch that the fixed ISDA spread adjustment does not correct at all under any circumstance.
  4. Because SOFR is a secured overnight rate and LIBOR was an unsecured, forward-looking term rate embedding bank credit risk, the fixed spread fully internalizes the entire credit differential between the two benchmarks at all times, leaving only a negligible residual tied to collateral haircuts and margining costs on the underlying swap trade.

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