medium · FRM Part 2 Liquidity & Treasury Risk
An institutional scenario: Bank A is the primary correspondent for Bank B. During a market crisis, Bank A experiences a technical failure in its payment gateway. Bank B has an LCR of 150%.
What is the most immediate risk to Bank B?
- An intraday liquidity squeeze as Bank B's expected incoming payments from Bank A are delayed, potentially causing Bank B to miss its own time-specific obligations.
- An automatic downgrade of Bank B's credit rating by at least three full notches, as is formally mandated under the applicable Basel III liquidity rules.
- A permanent loss of capital as Bank B's uninsured deposits at Bank A are written down entirely under statutory 'bail-in' resolution provisions and applicable law.
- A violation of the NSFR due to a sudden and largely unexpected increase in the Required Stable Funding factor assigned to Bank B's growing book of newly non-performing loans.
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