hard · FRM Part 2 Liquidity & Treasury Risk
A treasurer estimates the cost of a $2 billion liquidity buffer using a transfer-pricing framework. The buffer earns the 3-month government bill yield of 2.0% and is funded at the bank's 5-year senior unsecured rate of 4.5%. A junior analyst argues the true economic carrying cost is the full 250 bp spread.
Which critique BEST identifies the conceptual error in attributing the entire 250 bp to liquidity-buffer cost?
- The spread should be measured against the bank's overnight funding rate, not its 5-year rate, so the carry cost is overstated only by the term premium embedded in the 5-year tenor.
- Part of the spread compensates for the bank's own credit risk over a long tenor; the genuine liquidity-buffer cost is the spread of term funding over the matched-maturity risk-free rate, not over the short bill yield.
- The 250 bp overstates cost because the buffer's bills can be repo'd to recover most of the funding outlay, so only the repo haircut times the funding rate is a true cost.
- The carry is actually a benefit, not a cost, because holding HQLA reduces the bank's NSFR shortfall and thereby lowers its overall marginal funding spread by more than 250 bp.
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