hard · FRM Part 2 Market Risk
A Chief Risk Officer (CRO) is reviewing backtesting results where the Kupiec test failed to reject the model (p = 0.45), but the Christoffersen joint test rejected the model (p = 0.02).
What is the most likely structural cause for this discrepancy?
- The bank is using hypothetical P&L instead of actual P&L for the backtest
- The positions in the portfolio are primarily deep out-of-the-money long options
- The model uses an EWMA volatility engine with a very high decay factor (λ = 0.999)
- The model uses a GARCH(1,1) process that aggressively updates volatility daily
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