medium · Private Credit loan-structures-instruments
If a HoldCo PIK note is marked at 85 cents on the dollar (Fair Value) while OpCo senior debt is at 98 cents, what is the most likely cause for this 'Pricing Divergence'?
- The 'OID' on the note has already fully amortized, which mechanically causes its price to drop.
- HoldCo notes have higher 'Beta' and react more sharply to a perceived decline in the company's asset value.
- HoldCo notes are generally more liquid than senior debt and are therefore easier to sell at a discount.
- The senior debt's floating rate structure prevents it from ever trading below roughly 95 cents on the dollar amount.
Sign up free to see the explanation and track your rank →
More Private Credit loan-structures-instruments practice
- What is the blended interest rate paid by the borrower?
- What is the blended interest rate margin the borrower pays on the total facility?
- A fund manager is valuing a senior loan to a private mid-mar… — Under ASC 820, how is this
- A private credit fund is evaluating a 'Unitranche' loan for… — What is the borrower's expe
- Which group is the fulcrum?
- What is the indicative margin for the 'last-out' lender?
- What is the primary risk factor the lender evaluates?
- What is the most plausible reason for the 200 bps 'Non-Sponsor Premium'?