medium · FRM Part 1 Foundations of Risk Management
In the context of the 2007-2009 Financial Crisis, what was the primary 'model error' associated with the AAA ratings of senior mortgage-backed security tranches?
- The models simply assumed that house prices would never decline on a nationwide basis.
- The models failed to adequately account for how rising interest rates affect prepayment speeds.
- The models assumed default correlations were low and stable across different geographies.
- The models applied an inappropriately high loss recovery rate assumption for defaulted subprime loans.
Sign up free to see the explanation and track your rank →
More FRM Part 1 Foundations of Risk Management practice
- In the context of the CAPM, what is the definition of 'Alpha' (α)?
- What is the calculated Sortino Ratio?
- If two portfolios have the same Sharpe ratio but one has positive skewness and the other h
- If the correlation between the portfolio and the new asset is 0.0, and the manager allocat
- What is its approximate yield to maturity (YTM)?
- The BCBS 239 principle of 'Timeliness' suggests that risk reporting should be more frequen
- An investor adds a momentum factor (WML) to a Fama-French three-factor model. This new mod
- In a 'Liquidity Spiral', what is the primary channel by which market liquidity risk and fu